2010 - 2016 With Answers | Ovarian Cancer

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2010 - 2016 With Answers
  State Exam 06.10.2016 By: Dr. Abu Anzeh Muhammad Part A 01. Which child below doesn't need to be screened for iron deficiency anemia? A. A 4-month-old female, born at 32 weeks' gestational age B. An 18 months old obese male who consumes exclusively cow's milk C. A 5 years old female with hemochromatosis D. An 8 years old female with frequent diarrhea, fever and raised CRP E. A 14 years old female who appear generally heal dry 02. The most common dental problem in children? A. Carries B. Malocclusion C. Erosion D. Fluorosis E. Odontodysplasia 03. In which of the following situation breast feeding is allowed? A. A 22-year-old mother with HIV infection in the united state B. A 32-year-old mother with active TB who has been created for 1 week C. A 21-year-old mother with varicella infection D. A 29-year-old mother currently on therapeutic dose of chemotherapy E. A 19-year-old mother with hepatitis B infection 04.   A full term 4130 gr male infant is born via vaginal to mother who had not received prenatal care. In the delivery room the baby develops mild tachypnea and intercostals retraction. On physical examination, a flat abdomen and audible bowel sounds over the left side of chest are heard. Clear breath sound over the right side of chest. Heart sounds are best auscultated at the left sternal border. The most appropriate initial step in management of this neonate?  A. Needle decompression of the right hemi thorax B. Positive pressure ventilation using bag and mask C. Decompression of the stomach with nasogastric tube D. Positive pressure ventilation with a resuscitator E. Trans illumination of the right hemi thorax  05. A full term 3840 gr newborn female infant develops tachypnea with cyanosis at the delivery room. A physical examination reveals clear bilateral breath sound. When the infant is crying, however the nurse is unable to pass a suction catheter through the nares. The most appropriate initial step in management of this neonate is?  A. Oral airway placement B. Intranasal dexamethasone instillation C. Nasal cannula on administration D. Supine position   E. Nasal continuous positive airway pressure 06. A 3440-gram is delivered following a fetal bradycardia, on arrival at the delivery room table has no respiratory effort, he is covered in particulate meconium. The nurse palpates extreme bradycardia in the umbilical cord. Which of the following steps is next indicated in resuscitation of this neonate? A. Initiation of chest compression B. Placement of nasogastric tube C. Suctioning of the mouth and nose D. Catheterization of the umbilical vein E. Intubation and suctioning of the trachea 07. Which of the following is regarded as a known complication of treatment with total parenteral nutrition? A. Cholestasis B. Renal failure C. Severe eczema D. Vitamin A deficiency E. Respiratory alkalosis 08. A 12-month-old girl has been spitting up her meals since 1 month old. Her growth is at the 95% and she is otherwise asymptomatic and without findings on physical exam. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pyloric stenosis B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Brain tumor D. Partial duodenal atresia E. Renal failure  09. A 4 weeks' male infant has recurrent vomiting & a hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. What is the next best study? A. Urine organic acid B. Urine 17 hydroxy progesterone C. Stool culture D. Abdominal US E. Head US 10. A 2 years old child develops apnea, cyanosis & loss of consciousness with repeated generalized clonic jerks after being scolded by his mother. On examination, the child appears completely normal. What is the next best treatment option? A. Tegratol B. Valporic acid C. Antiarrhythmic D. Cardiac pacemaker E. Parental counseling 11. A 2 year old girl is found with an opened empty bottle of acetaminophen tablets and has pill fragments in her mouth. The major cause of mortality in acute poisoning of acetaminophen is which of the following? A. Hepatic injury B. Gastric bleeding C. Azothemia D. Convulsions E. Hypoglycemia 12. An 18 month old child presents with a 2 day history of fever. He is not eating well. On examination, you see 3mm vesicles on erythematous bases on the soft palate and tonsils. What is the most likely etiology for this infection? A. Group A streptococcus B. Enterovirus C. Herpes simplex virus D. Human herpes virus 6 E. Candida albicans  13. A new born has been diagnosed with aniridia. Which of the following tests should be performed on this patient? A. Chest radiography B. CT scan of the head C. Echocardiography D. Bone marrow aspiration E. Renal ultrasound 14. A 2 day old female neonate is examined prior to discharge from nursery. On exam the liver edge is 1 cm below the right costal margin and the spleen tip is not palpable. The umbilical stamp is dry. Bowel sounds are audible in the abdomen. When the infant cries, a slight distention of the abdominal space between the rectus abdominis muscle is noted and a soft swelling 1 cm diameter covered by skin protrudes at the umbilical area. The swelling is easily reduced. Which of the following steps is indicated for the infant? A. Order a liver and gallbladder ultrasound    B. Discharge the baby home with her parents C. Obtain peripheral blood smear D. Order a voiding cystourethrogram E. Consult a pediatric surgeon 15. A 16 year old female has a weight and BMI at the 60 th  percentile. Her heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits. She reports that overall things are going well at home and school. She admits that that she is experimenting with alcohol and marijuana. She also states that she wishes to that she was thinner and that she has been dieting. Which of the following physical examination findings will make you more concerned that she has an eating disorder? A. Acanthosis nigricans on her axila B. Dental erosions C. Dilated pupils D. Hyperthermia E. Kayser-Fleischer rings 16. A 16 year old female, despite history of regular periods, is not having her period for 3 month. After history and physical examination, What test you should order? A. DEXA scan to evaluate bone density B. A qualitative urine human chorionic gonadotropine test C. FSH and LH level D. Karyotype E. Urine drug screen
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